I continue debating with someone on another forum. He says that if Zimmerman were involved in a forcible felony, that then, even if he could not escape from underneath Martin, he would still lose his self defense immunity. Is he right, and is it possible GZ was perpetrating a forcible felony? here are his words.
http://www.leg.state.fl.us/Statutes/.../0776.041.htmlFlorida Statute 776.041 (Use of Force by Aggressor) has two parts. You should notice that paragraph (1) and (2) are separated by a "OR".
776.041 says the justifications in the preceding paragraphs (which are 776.012, 776.013, and 776.031 [collectively the self defense justifications] are not available under conditions specified in para 1 OR 2.
Para (1): If you are committing a forcible felony (murder, rape, felonious assault, etc.) you loose self defense immunity and it cannot be regained, you can always be held resposiible for your actions resulting from the initiation of a forcible felony. This is the section my snippet from my previous post (repeated above was referencing) in the larger post. If you were committing a forcible felony the state does not have to show any opportunity of reasonable escape, it doesn't matter anymore.
Para (2): On the other hand para (2) applies for initial aggressors when not in a forcible felony situation. In that case self-defense can be retained if there was no opportunity to escape and in good faith the individual attempted to withdraw and the non-initial aggressor then continues the violence. However, if an opportunity to escape or retreat does exist and the initial aggressor fails to take it and continues the violence - then they again forfeit self-defense immunity.